C1000-174 Exam Online Dumps - Replacement Test of C9510-418 - Free Latest Dumps for IT Certification Exams

C1000-174 Exam Online Dumps – Replacement Test of C9510-418

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The C1000-174 exam is the new replacement test for C9510-418. IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment v9.0.5 Administrator C1000-174 exam basic information can help you understand the test well. There are 60 questions in the real IBM Certification C1000-174 exam, and you have 90 minutes to answer all the questions. The number of questions required to pass the IBM C1000-174 exam is 42. The available language is English. We have cracked the latest IBM C1000-174 exam online dumps, which are valid in your preparation. Free IBM Certified Administrator C1000-174 exam online dumps are available below.

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1. Which component dynamically allocates resources to applications based on demand in an intelligent management framework?

Resource Scheduler

Load Balancer

Policy Director

Application Controller

2. What is the purpose of a load balancer in the deployment of applications?

Ensuring application compatibility

Managing application updates

Distributing incoming network traffic across multiple servers

Securing data during deployment

3. An administrator installed an enterprise application in fast mode and noticed that the application is failing because J2EE roles have not been mapped.

How can this issue be resolved?

Re-deploy the application.

Request that the application developer create an enhanced .ear file which has roles mapped, and deploy the enhanced .ear file.

Map a security role to the user/group for the application using the Integrated Solutions Console, save changes, and restart the application.

Map a security role to the user runAs roles for the application using the Integrated Solutions Console, save changes, and restart the application.

4. An administrator has removed a node, but all the resources associated with the deleted node still exist.

What can the administrator do to ensure the node configuration is removed from the cell repository?

Run the command syncNoode.

Refederate and remove the node.

Run the command cleanupNode.

Perform node synchronization via the Integrated Solutions Console.

5. Which of the following is NOT a version control system?

Git

Subversion (SVN)

Docker

Mercurial

6. What is the purpose of a "build tool" in software development?

To create documentation

To generate reports

To compile, test, and package code

To design user interfaces

7. What is needed on order to integrate IBM WebSphere Application Serve security and third-party security servers?

Set up a Trust Association.

Create a new session cookie definition.

Enable Java Authentication SPI (JASPI).

Implement a custom single sign on token.

8. What is a common method for achieving high availability in a network?

Load Balancing

Debugging

Single-Point-of-Failure

Bottlenecking

9. An administrator has made a configuration change to a server in network deployment topology.

Which statement describes the synchronization process in this scenario?

Configuration changes on a server are prohibited

Node agent synchronizes its files with the master repository

Configuration changes are maintained on the node's master repository

Node agent synchronizes its files with the master repository when the deployment manager is restarted

10. What aspect characterizes a multi-tier environment?

Single-layered system

Centralized data processing

Division of functionalities into separate layers

Lack of user interaction

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11. Which of the following is true about certificate expiration monitoring?

Must be run manually.

Must be run on the deployment manager.

Deletes the certificates after they are expired, but does not replace them.

Can replace expired certificates or certificates in the expiration threshold with a new certificate

12. What is a Cell in the context of IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment?

It is a single instance of WebSphere.

It is a combination of multiple application servers.

It represents a grouping of physical servers.

It refers to a collection of administrative agents.

13. Which of the following is a package manager for JavaScript?

npm

Pip

Composer

Maven

14. Which tool can be used to collect data to be used for monitoring and tuning the environment?

Thread and Monitor Dump Analyzer

Performance Monitoring Infrastructure

IBM Tivoli Performance Viewer Advisor

Garbage Collection and Memory Visualizer

15. When adding a repository to a federated repository configuration, which type of repository can be added only using wsadmin commands?

File repository

LDAP repository

SAML repository

Database repository

16. How can an administrator deploy or update an EAR, JAR, WAR, or SAR file to an application server or cluster in a development environment?

Place the file in the monitored directory.

Place the file in the operating system defined temporary directory.

Place the file in the operating system defined user home directory for the user that owns the Java process.

Email the file to [email protected], where hotname.com is the host of the IBM WebSphere Application Server.

17. Which step must be completed when placing an application edition in validation mode?

Roll out the new edition.

Stop the currently active edition.

Create routing policies for the new edition.

Verify that three cluster members are used in the task.

18. What is the primary function of the Deployment Manager in IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment?

It manages applications across multiple servers.

It serves as the primary web server.

It is responsible for hosting the database.

It controls the routing of HTTP requests.

19. In an intelligent management setup, what does "Autonomic Computing" primarily aim to achieve?

Automated and self-configuring systems

Manual and fixed system configurations

Reducing network speed

Static allocation of resources

20. How would an administrator configure Cross Component Trace?

Through wsadmin script only

Through the Integrated Solutions Console only

Through the supplied Cross Component Trace enablement tool

Through either the Integrated Solutions Console or through wsadmin script

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21. Which is true when an administrator properly updates a single file within an application?

The administrator can use a partial application update.

The administrator must redeploy the full application file.

The administrator can manually update the file on the file system.

The administrator must uninstall the application, and then, reinstall with the updated application file.

22. In a three-tier architecture, what is the relationship between the presentation, application, and data tiers?

They are independent and do not interact

Each tier communicates directly with the other two

Only the presentation tier interacts with the application tier

The data tier is isolated from the other two tiers

23. Which deployment approach involves packaging an application and its dependencies into a single unit for seamless deployment and execution?

Containerization

Virtualization

Multi-tenancy

Monolithic Deployment

24. What are two automated administrative tasks that can be done with configuration checkpoints? (Select two.)

delete

restore

archive

backup

compress

25. Which attack involves an attacker intercepting communication between two parties, secretly altering it, and then relaying it?

Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack

Trojan horse attack

Ransomware attack

Buffer overflow attack

26. If a printer fails to print after being installed, what might be a potential cause?

Low ink levels

Insufficient paper in the tray

Printer driver issues or connection problems

Network firewall blocking printing

27. Which factor is often monitored to assess the availability and response time of a website or service?

Uptime

Energy consumption

RAM allocation

Network bandwidth

28. What does the term "Garbage Collection" refer to in software performance optimization?

Disposing of unused memory objects

Reducing processor load

Optimizing network bandwidth

Upgrading software versions

29. Which of the following is true about creating multiple security domains?

A new security domain can be created only using the administrative console.

Global security must be enabled before creating new multiple security domains.

Only users assigned to the security-admin role can create new multiple security domains.

If a unique name for the domain is not specified, the system will automatically create one.

30. A administrator has configured memory to memory (M2M) session persistence for a large WebSphere Application Server ND cluster with a dedicated data replication service (DRS) domain.

How can they keep the DRS domain secure?

Select encryption type DES and TRIPLE_DE

Select DCS-Secure as transport chain under Core Group name.

Nothing needs to be done, the environment is secured when using M2M session persistence.

Select encryption type DES and TRIPLE_DES and regenerate the encryption key periodically.

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31. What state must an application edition be in before it can be started?

Active

InActive

Validation

Deactivated

32. Which of the following could be diagnosed using one of the Diagnostic tools in the IBM Support Assistant?

Port conflicts

Capacity problems

Network performance problems

Operating system prerequisites

33. Which of the following is a potential consequence when using an external session management store over a server level store?

A server level store makes a smaller footprint.

Only half the current sessions can be saved externally.

External session management stores can use additional system resources.

Using an external session management store takes 10X as long to rebuild the session after a failure.

34. Which tool is commonly used to automate the deployment of applications in a server environment?

Jenkins

Photoshop

Microsoft Excel

Slack

35. Which technique involves creating redundant systems that can immediately take over if the main system fails?

Parallel Processing

Data Mirroring

Clustering

Replication

36. Which process involves configuring and managing software, applying updates, and ensuring application availability in a live environment?

Development

Deployment

Application Administration

Debugging

37. An administrator wants to verify an IBM WebSphere Application Server installation by examining the installation’s directory structure. In this example, <WAS_installation_directory> indicates the installation’s root directory.

What is one directory tree structure that indicates a successful installation of the product files?

<WAS_installation_directory>/web

<WAS_installation_directory>/bin

<WAS_installation_directory>/profiles

<WAS_installation_directory>/installableApps

38. What does "CPU utilization" refer to in the context of system monitoring?

The percentage of time the CPU is executing processes

The frequency at which the CPU accesses memory

The capacity of the CPU cache

The rate of data transfer between the CPU and peripherals

39. What information must the system administrator have to successfully tune a connection pool?

The requests per second that occur during a peak.

The MaxConnections and WaitingCount values.

The number of concurrent requests waiting for a connection.

How long the database takes to respond to SELECT operations only.

40. Which tool is commonly used for remotely administering servers or workstations?

PowerShell

Notepad

WinZip

Google Chrome

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41. If an administrator dynamically generates a plugin-cfg file after setting up high availability automatic generation, what will be the results?

The dynamic generation issues a propagation request.

The dynamic generation creates a second plugin-cfg file.

The dynamic generation overwrites the intelligent management settings.

An error message is shown that cannot be dynamically generated.

42. Heapdumps, javacores, and system cores are recommended to be generated for which kind of IBM WebSphere Application Server problems?

Slow page rendering

High CPU and disk I/O

Slow File uploads and downloads

System hangs and out of memory

43. What feature in intelligent management allows servers to join or leave a cluster without disrupting the system?

Elastic Clustering

Static Membership

Dynamic Scaling

Failover Mechanism

44. In WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment, what does the term 'Node' refer to?

A physical server.

A specific machine hosting application server instances.

An administrative console.

A container for web applications.

45. What must be done to delete one or more files from an application when using a partial application update?

Manually delete the files from the file system (on all nodes if clustered).

Supply the paths to the files that should be deleted in the administrative console.

Include a META-INF/ibm-partialapp-delete.props in the partial application update file.

Select the files that need to be deleted in the file selector section of the form for the partial application update.

46. Which tool is used to remotely access another system's desktop?

Telnet

SSH

RDP

SNMP

47. What is a benefit of using the IBM Extended Cache Monitor?

It invalidates cacheids.

It displays the contents of the cache instances.

It displays the contents of object cache instances.

It displays the dependency ids of the cache instances.

48. Which type of fix would typically be downloaded to address a specific problem?

Interim fix

Cumulative fix

Product fix pack

Cumulative interim fix

49. What does the term "Continuous Integration" refer to in the context of deploying applications?

Continuous testing of applications

Continuous and automated integration of code changes into a shared repository

Continuous deployment of applications to production servers

Continuous monitoring of application performance

50. What does the “Update all” selection install by default if no further action is taken?

All updates are installed for all installed package groups.

All updates for only the selected package group are installed.

Only recommended updates for all installed package groups are installed.

Only recommended updates for the selected package groups are installed.

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51. Which concept involves deploying and maintaining multiple independent instances of an application for different clients or user groups?

Microservices

Monolithic Architecture

Multi-tenancy

Single-Tenant Deployment

52. Which tool can be used to get dynamic cache size details and monitoring and tuning suggestions?

Request metrics

Performance servlet

Performance and Diagnostic Advisor

IBM Tivoli Performance Viewer advisor

53. An administrator would like to uninstall an instance of a multiple instance installation via response file.

How does the administrator ensure that the correct instance is uninstalled?

All the features must be listed.

The profile ID must point to the correct instance.

The offering ID must point to the correct instance.

The repository location must point to the correct instance.

54. If an administrator sets the regenerate time for high availability plug-in generation to 10, what is the effect?

The plugin-cfg file is generated exactly every 10 minutes.

The plugin-cfg file is generated at most every 10 minutes.

The plugin-cfg file is generated 10 minutes after a rebuild request.

The plugin-cfg file is generated after doing a poll every 10 minutes.

55. Which encryption protocol is commonly used for securing internet communication?

WEP

SSH

HTTPS

FTPS

56. Which of the following is true regarding disk offload?

The amount of disk space to use cannot be specified.

On server startup, DynaCache loads the entire disk cache into memory.

The number of cache entries that are offloaded to disk cannot be specified.

Disk offload can be enabled to have a cache entry copied to the file system at a configurable location.

57. Which of the following is an allowed sharing policy in the cachespec.xml?

delete

replicate

syndicate

not-shared

58. What is the default programming model for application development in WebSphere Application Server?

Servlets and JSP

EJBs

JavaBeans

Spring Framework

59. How would an administrator analyze Cross Component Trace output?

Use the logViewer command to review the information

Review the SystemErr.log files to review the information.

Use the Integrated Solutions Console to review the information.

Use the included Cross Component Trace servlet to review the information.

60. When configuring a dynamic cluster, which option can improve bottleneck conditions in deployed applications by enabling the placement controller to start more than one instance of the dynamic cluster on a node?

Automatic mode

Vertical stacking

Number of server instances

Custom dynamic server template

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61. After executing the command: imcl listInstalledPackages, an administrator sees the following result: com.ibm.websphere.ND.v90_9.0.0.20160203_0234.

What does this indicate to the administrator?

IBM Installation Manager was installed.

Installation Manager installed IBM WebSphere Application Server.

The Profile Management Tool installed WebSphere Application Server.

WebSphere Customization Toolbox installed WebSphere Application Server.

62. An administrator configures an IBM DB2data source at cell scope. The environment variable DB2UNIVERSAL_JDBC_DRIVER_PATH is configured at cluster scope.

The data source test connection on one node succeeds, but fails on the other node with java.lang.ClassNotFoundException:com.ibm.db2.jcc.DB2ConnectionPoolDataSource.

Which of the below is the likely cause for the exception?

The data source is configured at cell scope.

Multiple driver JARs are installed on the second node.

DB2UNIVERSAL_JDBC_DRIVER_PATH is configured at cluster scope.

A different version of the JDBC driver JAR does not exist on the second node.

63. When updating an application, what is important to keep in mind?

The application is only updated during the next server restart.

The application is automatically stopped, updated, and restarted.

The application is only updated during the next restart of the application.

The application is stopped, updated, and restarted at the scheduled time.

64. When enabling SSL directives in the IBM HTTP Server configuration file, which parameter is required?

The name of the key file

The AllowOverride statement

The IP address of the VirtualHost

The DocumentRoot directory path

65. Which metric is commonly used to measure the responsiveness of a system under a given workload?

Throughput

Latency

Bandwidth

Capacity

66. Which protocol is commonly used for secure shell access and secure file transfers?

FTP

SSH

Telnet

HTTP

67. Which two ways are valid ways to install applications to IBM WebSphere Application Server? (Select two.)

wsadmin script

JMS messaging

IBM Installation Manager

IBM Tivoli Access Manager

Integrated Solutions Console

68. To write a Jython script to stop a running application server, an administrator should use which administrative object?

AdminApp

AdminTask

AdminConfig

AdminControl

69. Which of the following is true for federated Repositories?

Does not support identity profiles

Provides read only capability for the registries.

Supports one registry only in a realm within a cell

Supports multiple repositories in a realm within a cell

70. An administrator is using the Guided Troubleshooter in the IBM Support Assistant to troubleshoot IBM WebSphere Application Server issues. After going through data collection and analysis, no reliable solution is found.

What is the administrator’s best next step?

Call in a new PMR with IBM and upload Troubleshooter data to ECuRE

Open a new PMR with IBM and upload SystemOut.log from the IBM WebSphere Application Server.

Submit results to the IBM WebSphere Application Server forum for a quick response from other forum users.

Use the Guided Troubleshooter to open a service request with IBM, so all the troubleshooting data analyzed so far is uploaded automatically.

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71. When installing interim fixes, which of the following is a valid repository option?

Main repository

Local repository

Secured repository

Compressed repository

C1000-174 Exam Online Dumps – Replacement Test of C9510-418

C1000-174 Exam Online Dumps – Replacement Test of C9510-418

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