Real Exam Dumps for CCSP Test

dumps2022-03-11T01:57:53+08:00

CCSP exam is much useful for you to pass and get certified if you are IT and information security leaders. In real CCSP exam, there are 100 operational items with 25 pretest items, and each CCSP candidate has 3 hours to finish the test. The available languages are English and Japanese. We provide the latest CCSP real exam dumps, which are good in your preparation. Free CCSP real exam dumps are below.

Page 1 of 16

1. Which of the following roles is responsible for creating cloud components and the testing and validation of services?

Cloud auditor

Inter-cloud provider

Cloud service broker

Cloud service developer

2. What is the best source for information about securing a physical asset's BIOS?

Security policies

Manual pages

Vendor documentation

Regulations

3. Which of the following is not a component of contractual PII?

Scope of processing

Value of data

Location of data

Use of subcontractors

4. Which of the following concepts refers to a cloud customer paying only for the resources and offerings they use within a cloud environment, and only for the duration that they are consuming them?

Consumable service

Measured service

Billable service

Metered service

5. Which of the following roles involves testing, monitoring, and securing cloud services for an organization?

Cloud service integrator

Cloud service business manager

Cloud service user

Cloud service administrator

6. What is the only data format permitted with the SOAP API?

HTML

SAML

XSML

XML

7. Which data formats are most commonly used with the REST API?

JSON and SAML

XML and SAML

XML and JSON

SAML and HTML

8. Which of the following threat types involves an application that does not validate authorization for portions of itself after the initial checks?

Injection

Missing function-level access control

Cross-site request forgery

Cross-site scripting

9. Which of the following roles involves overseeing billing, purchasing, and requesting audit reports for an organization within a cloud environment?

Cloud service user

Cloud service business manager

Cloud service administrator

Cloud service integrator

10. What is the biggest concern with hosting a key management system outside of the cloud environment?

Confidentiality

Portability

Availability

Integrity

Page 2 of 16

11. Which of the following approaches would NOT be considered sufficient to meet the requirements of secure data destruction within a cloud environment?

Cryptographic erasure

Zeroing

Overwriting

Deletion

12. Which of the following cloud aspects complicates eDiscovery?

Resource pooling

On-demand self-service

Multitenancy

Measured service

13. What does the management plane typically utilize to perform administrative functions on the hypervisors that it has access to?

Scripts

RDP

APIs

XML

14. What is a serious complication an organization faces from the perspective of compliance with international operations?

Different certifications

Multiple jurisdictions

Different capabilities

Different operational procedures

15. Which networking concept in a cloud environment allows for network segregation and isolation of IP spaces?

PLAN

WAN

LAN

VLAN

16. Which of the following standards primarily pertains to cabling designs and setups in a data center?

IDCA

BICSI

NFPA

Uptime Institute

17. Which of the following publishes the most commonly used standard for data center design in regard to tiers and topologies?

IDCA

Uptime Institute

NFPA

BICSI

18. What type of segregation and separation of resources is needed within a cloud environment for multitenancy purposes versus a traditional data center model?

Virtual

Security

Physical

Logical

19. Which United States law is focused on data related to health records and privacy?

Safe Harbor

SOX

GLBA

HIPAA

20. What is used for local, physical access to hardware within a data center?

SSH

KVM

VPN

RDP

Page 3 of 16

21. Within an Infrastructure as a Service model, which of the following would NOT be a measured service?

CPU

Storage

Number of users

Memory

22. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for data within the scope of eDiscovery?

Possession

Custody

Control

Archive

23. Which United States law is focused on accounting and financial practices of organizations?

Safe Harbor

GLBA

SOX

HIPAA

24. What type of masking strategy involves making a separate and distinct copy of data with masking in place?

Dynamic

Replication

Static

Duplication

25. Which of the following storage types is most closely associated with a database-type storage implementation?

Object

Unstructured

Volume

Structured

26. Which of the following roles is responsible for overseeing customer relationships and the processing of financial transactions?

Cloud service manager

Cloud service deployment

Cloud service business manager

Cloud service operations manager

27. Which protocol does the REST API depend on?

HTTP

XML

SAML

SSH

28. Which United States program was designed to enable organizations to bridge the gap between privacy laws and requirements of the United States and the European Union?

GLBA

HIPAA

Safe Harbor

SOX

29. What is the biggest benefit to leasing space in a data center versus building or maintain your own?

Certification

Costs

Regulation

Control

30. Which of the following security measures done at the network layer in a traditional data center are also applicable to a cloud environment?

Dedicated switches

Trust zones

Redundant network circuits

Direct connections

Page 4 of 16

31. Which aspect of cloud computing will be most negatively impacted by vendor lock-in?

Elasticity

Reversibility

Interoperability

Portability

32. Which of the following APIs are most commonly used within a cloud environment?

REST and SAML

SOAP and REST

REST and XML

XML and SAML

33. Which of the following attempts to establish an international standard for eDiscovery processes and best practices?

ISO/IEC 31000

ISO/IEC 27050

ISO/IEC 19888

ISO/IEC 27001

34. Which of the following roles is responsible for obtaining new customers and securing contracts and agreements?

Inter-cloud provider

Cloud service broker

Cloud auditor

Cloud service developer

35. Which term relates to the application of scientific methods and practices to evidence?

Forensics

Methodical

Theoretical

Measured

36. Which of the following roles involves the provisioning and delivery of cloud services?

Cloud service deployment manager

Cloud service business manager

Cloud service manager

Cloud service operations manager

37. What is the primary reason that makes resolving jurisdictional conflicts complicated?

Different technology standards

Costs

Language barriers

Lack of international authority

38. GAAPs are created and maintained by which organization?

ISO/IEC

AICPA

PCI Council

ISO

39. Which of the following roles is responsible for preparing systems for the cloud, administering and monitoring services, and managing inventory and assets?

Cloud service business manager

Cloud service deployment manager

Cloud service operations manager

Cloud service manager

40. Which protocol allows a system to use block-level storage as if it was a SAN, but over TCP network traffic instead?

SATA

iSCSI

TLS

SCSI

Page 5 of 16

41. Which of the cloud deployment models is used by popular services such as iCloud, Dropbox, and OneDrive?

Hybrid

Public

Private

Community

42. Why does a Type 2 hypervisor typically offer less security control than a Type 1 hypervisor?

A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of another operating system and is dependent on the security of the OS for its own security.

A Type 2 hypervisor allows users to directly perform some functions with their own access.

A Type 2 hypervisor is open source, so attackers can more easily find exploitable vulnerabilities with that access.

A Type 2 hypervisor is always exposed to the public Internet for federated identity access.

43. Which is the appropriate phase of the cloud data lifecycle for determining the data's classification?

Create

Use

Store

44. Which of the following is the optimal temperature for a data center, per the guidelines established by the America Society of Heating, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE)?

69.8-86.0degF (21-30degC)

64.4-80.6degF(18-27degC)

51.8-66.2degF(11-19degC)

44.6-60-8degF(7-16degC)

45. Which of the following is not a risk management framework?

COBIT

Hex GBL

ISO 31000:2009

NIST SP 800-37

46. Which of the following threat types involves the sending of untrusted data to a user's browser to be executed with their own credentials and access?

Missing function level access control

Cross-site scripting

Cross-site request forgery

Injection

47. How is an object stored within an object storage system?

Key value

Database

LDAP

Tree structure

48. Which of the following is NOT a regulatory system from the United States federal government?

PCI DSS

FISMA

SOX

HIPAA

49. Which jurisdiction lacks specific and comprehensive privacy laws at a national or top level of legal authority?

European Union

Germany

Russia

United States

50. Which United States law is focused on PII as it relates to the financial industry?

HIPAA

SOX

Safe Harbor

GLBA

Page 6 of 16

51. Which of the following threat types can occur when encryption is not properly applied or insecure transport mechanisms are used?

Security misconfiguration

Insecure direct object references

Sensitive data exposure

Unvalidated redirects and forwards

52. What is the best approach for dealing with services or utilities that are installed on a system but not needed to perform their desired function?

Remove

Monitor

Disable

Stop

53. Which of the following actions will NOT make data part of the "create" phase of the cloud data lifecycle?

Modifying metadata

Importing data

Modifying data

Constructing new data

54. What are the two protocols that TLS uses?

Handshake and record

Transport and initiate

Handshake and transport

Record and transmit

55. Which type of cloud model typically presents the most challenges to a cloud customer during the "destroy" phase of the cloud data lifecycle?

IaaS

DaaS

SaaS

PaaS

56. Which of the following may unilaterally deem a cloud hosting model inappropriate for a system or application?

Multitenancy

Certification

Regulation

Virtualization

57. Which of the following is considered an internal redundancy for a data center?

Power distribution units

Network circuits

Power substations

Generators

58. Which of the following represents a control on the maximum amount of resources that a single customer, virtual machine, or application can consume within a cloud environment?

Reservation

Provision

Limit

59. Which of the following roles is responsible for peering with other cloud services and providers?

Cloud auditor

Inter-cloud provider

Cloud service broker

Cloud service developer

60. Which of the following does NOT relate to the hiding of sensitive data from data sets?

Obfuscation

Federation

Masking

Anonymization

Page 7 of 16

61. Which of the following are the storage types associated with IaaS?

Volume and object

Volume and label

Volume and container

Object and target

62. Which technology can be useful during the "share" phase of the cloud data lifecycle to continue to protect data as it leaves the original system and security controls?

IPS

WAF

DLP

IDS

63. Which of the following storage types is most closely associated with a traditional file system and tree structure?

Volume

Unstructured

Object

Structured

64. Which of the following represents a prioritization of applications or cloud customers for the allocation of additional requested resources when there is a limitation on available resources?

Provision

Limit

Reservation

65. Which type of audit report does many cloud providers use to instill confidence in their policies, practices, and procedures to current and potential customers?

SAS-70

SOC 2

SOC 1

SOX

66. Which of the following statements accurately describes VLANs?

They are not restricted to the same data center or the same racks.

They are not restricted to the name rack but restricted to the same data center.

They are restricted to the same racks and data centers.

They are not restricted to the same rack but restricted to same switches.

67. What must be secured on physical hardware to prevent unauthorized access to systems?

BIOS

SSH

RDP

ALOM

68. What type of PII is regulated based on the type of application or per the conditions of the specific hosting agreement?

Specific

Contractual

regulated

Jurisdictional

69. Which of the following security technologies is commonly used to give administrators access into trust zones within an environment?

VPN

WAF

IPSec

HTTPS

70. Which concept BEST describes the capability for a cloud environment to automatically scale a system or application, based on its current resource demands?

On-demand self-service

Resource pooling

Measured service

Rapid elasticity

Page 8 of 16

71. If you're using iSCSI in a cloud environment, what must come from an external protocol or application?

Kerberos support

CHAP support

Authentication

Encryption

72. Which of the following pertains to a macro level approach to data center design rather than the traditional tiered approach to data centers?

IDCA

NFPA

BICSI

Uptime Institute

73. What does the REST API support that SOAP does NOT support?

Caching

Encryption

Acceleration

Redundancy

74. Why does a Type 1 hypervisor typically offer tighter security controls than a Type 2 hypervisor?

A Type 1 hypervisor also controls patching of its hosted virtual machines ensure they are always secure.

A Type 1 hypervisor is tied directly to the bare metal and only runs with code necessary to perform its specific mission.

A Type 1 hypervisor performs hardware-level encryption for tighter security and efficiency.

A Type 1 hypervisor only hosts virtual machines with the same operating systems as the hypervisor.

75. Which of the following are the storage types associated with PaaS?

Structured and freeform

Volume and object

Structured and unstructured

Database and file system

76. Which of the following threat types can occur when baselines are not appropriately applied or unauthorized changes are made?

Insecure direct object references

Unvalidated redirects and forwards

Security misconfiguration

Sensitive data exposure

77. What is the data encapsulation used with the SOAP protocol referred to?

Packet

Envelope

Payload

Object

78. Which of the following threat types can occur when an application does not properly validate input and can be leveraged to send users to malicious sites that appear to be legitimate?

Unvalidated redirects and forwards

Insecure direct object references

Security miscomfiguration

Sensitive data exposure

79. Which publication from the United States National Institute of Standards and Technology pertains to defining cloud concepts and definitions for the various core components of cloud computing?

SP 800-153

SP 800-145

SP 800-53

SP 800-40

80. What is the biggest negative to leasing space in a data center versus building or maintain your own?

Costs

Control

Certification

Regulation

Page 9 of 16

81. Which aspect of archiving must be tested regularly for the duration of retention requirements?

Availability

Recoverability

Auditability

Portability

82. Which of the following represents a minimum guaranteed resource within a cloud environment for the cloud customer?

Reservation

Limit

Provision

83. When is a virtual machine susceptible to attacks while a physical server in the same state would not be?

When it is behind a WAF

When it is behind an IPS

When it is not patched

When it is powered off

84. Which of the following threat types involves an application developer leaving references to internal information and configurations in code that is exposed to the client?

Sensitive data exposure

Security misconfiguration

Insecure direct object references

Unvalidated redirect and forwards

85. Which of the following is the biggest concern or challenge with using encryption?

Dependence on keys

Cipher strength

Efficiency

Protocol standards

86. Which of the following would NOT be considered part of resource pooling with an Infrastructure as a Service implementation?

Storage

Application

Mamory

CPU

87. Which technology is NOT commonly used for security with data in transit?

DNSSEC

IPsec

VPN

HTTPS

88. Which of the following roles is responsible for gathering metrics on cloud services and managing cloud deployments and the deployment processes?

Cloud service business manager

Cloud service operations manager

Cloud service manager

Cloud service deployment manager

89. Which of the following is considered an external redundancy for a data center?

Power feeds to rack

Generators

Power distribution units

Storage systems

90. Which of the following is the optimal humidity level for a data center, per the guidelines established by the America Society of Heating, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE)?

30-50 percent relative humidity

50-75 percent relative humidity

20-40 percent relative humidity

40-60 percent relative humidity

Page 10 of 16

91. What is the first stage of the cloud data lifecycle where security controls can be implemented?

Use

Store

Create

92. What controls the formatting and security settings of a volume storage system within a cloud environment?

Management plane

SAN host controller

Hypervisor

Operating system of the host

93. What does SDN stand for within a cloud environment?

Software-dynamic networking

Software-defined networking

Software-dependent networking

System-dynamic nodes

94. From a legal perspective, what is the most important first step after an eDiscovery order has been received by the cloud provider?

Notification

Key identification

Data collection

Virtual image snapshots

95. Which of the following would make it more likely that a cloud provider would be unwilling to satisfy specific certification requirements?

Resource pooling

Virtualization

Multitenancy

Regulation

96. Which of the following pertains to fire safety standards within a data center, specifically with their enormous electrical consumption?

NFPA

BICSI

IDCA

Uptime Institute

97. Which of the following roles involves the connection and integration of existing systems and services to a cloud environment?

Cloud service business manager

Cloud service user

Cloud service administrator

Cloud service integrator

98. Which technique involves replacing values within a specific data field to protect sensitive data?

Anonymization

Masking

Tokenization

Obfuscation

99. What expectation of data custodians is made much more challenging by a cloud implementation, especially with PaaS or SaaS?

Data classification

Knowledge of systems

Access to data

Encryption requirements

100. What type of PII is controlled based on laws and carries legal penalties for noncompliance with requirements?

Contractual

Regulated

Specific

Jurisdictional

Page 11 of 16

101. Which if the following is NOT one of the three components of a federated identity system transaction?

Relying party

Identity provider

User

Proxy relay

102. Which value refers to the amount of time it takes to recover operations in a BCDR situation to meet management's objectives?

RSL

RPO

SRE

RTO

103. Which of the cloud deployment models requires the cloud customer to be part of a specific group or organization in order to host cloud services within it?

Community

Hybrid

Private

Public

104. What provides the information to an application to make decisions about the authorization level appropriate when granting access?

User

Relying party

Federation

Identity Provider

105. What is a standard configuration and policy set that is applied to systems and virtual machines called?

Standardization

Baseline

Hardening

Redline

106. Which entity requires all collection and storing of data on their citizens to be done on hardware that resides within their borders?

Russia

France

Germany

United States

107. Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the ability to easily move services and applications between different cloud providers?

Reversibility

Availability

Portability

Interoperability

108. Which type of audit report is considered a "restricted use" report for its intended audience?

SAS-70

SSAE-16

SOC Type 1

SOC Type 2

109. What is the concept of segregating information or processes, within the same system or application, for security reasons?

fencing

Sandboxing

Cellblocking

Pooling

110. The European Union passed the first major regulation declaring data privacy to be a human right.

In what year did it go into effect?

2010

2000

1995

1990

Page 12 of 16

111. Which of the following is NOT a key area for performance monitoring as far as an SLA is concerned?

CPU

Users

Memory

Network

112. Which of the following is the MOST important requirement and guidance for testing during an audit?

Stakeholders

Shareholders

Management

Regulations

113. Which value refers to the amount of data an organization would need to recover in the event of a BCDR situation in order to reach an acceptable level of operations?

SRE

RTO

RPO

RSL

114. What must SOAP rely on for security?

Encryption

Tokenization

TLS

SSL

115. Which of the following is a commonly used tool for maintaining system configurations?

Maestro

Orchestrator

Puppet

Conductor

116. What type of data does data rights management (DRM) protect?

Consumer

PII

Financial

Healthcare

117. Which type of testing uses the same strategies and toolsets that hackers would use?

Penetration

Dynamic

Static

Malicious

118. From a security perspective, which of the following is a major concern when evaluating possible BCDR solutions?

Access provisioning

Auditing

Jurisdictions

Authorization

119. Which of the following is NOT a focus or consideration of an internal audit?

Certification

Design

Costs

Operational efficiency

120. Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the cloud customer, regardless of which cloud model is used?

Infrastructure

Platform

Application

Data

Page 13 of 16

121. What process is used within a clustered system to provide high availability and load balancing?

Dynamic balancing

Dynamic clustering

Dynamic optimization

Dynamic resource scheduling

122. Which of the following is NOT a function performed by the handshake protocol of TLS?

Key exchange

Encryption

Negotiation of connection

Establish session ID

123. Unlike SOC Type 1 reports, which are based on a specific point in time, SOC Type 2 reports are done over a period of time.

What is the minimum span of time for a SOC Type 2 report?

Six months

One month

One year

One week

124. What changes are necessary to application code in order to implement DNSSEC?

Adding encryption modules

Implementing certificate validations

Additional DNS lookups

No changes are needed.

125. Which type of controls are the SOC Type 1 reports specifically focused on?

Integrity

PII

Financial

Privacy

126. Which security concept is based on preventing unauthorized access to data while also ensuring that it is accessible to those authorized to use it?

Integrity

Availability

Confidentiality

Nonrepudiation

127. Which of the following is NOT a domain of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)?

Data center security

Human resources

Mobile security

Budgetary and cost controls

128. Which security concept, if implemented correctly, will protect the data on a system, even if a malicious actor gains access to the actual system?

Sandboxing

Encryption

Firewalls

Access control

129. Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the cloud provider, regardless of which cloud model is used?

Platform

Data

Physical environment

Infrastructure

130. Which of the following is NOT a factor that is part of a firewall configuration?

Encryption

Port

Protocol

Source IP

Page 14 of 16

131. Which of the cloud deployment models involves spanning multiple cloud environments or a mix of cloud hosting models?

Community

Public

Hybrid

Private

132. Which of the following is NOT one of five principles of SOC Type 2 audits?

Privacy

Processing integrity

Financial

Security

133. Which aspect of cloud computing makes data classification even more vital than in a traditional data center?

Interoperability

Virtualization

Multitenancy

Portability

134. What concept does the "T" represent in the STRIDE threat model?

TLS

Testing

Tampering with data

Transport

135. Which of the following would be a reason to undertake a BCDR test?

Functional change of the application

Change in staff

User interface overhaul of the application

Change in regulations

136. What is the biggest challenge to data discovery in a cloud environment?

Format

Ownership

Location

Multitenancy

137. Which crucial aspect of cloud computing can be most threatened by insecure APIs?

Automation

Redundancy

Resource pooling

Elasticity

138. Which of the following should NOT be part of the requirement analysis phase of the software development lifecycle?

Functionality

Programming languages

Software platform

Security requirements

139. Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the assigning of jobs, tasks, and roles, as well as to ensuring they are successful and properly performed?

Service-level agreements

Governance

Regulatory requirements

Auditability

140. Which regulatory system pertains to the protection of healthcare data?

HIPAA

HAS

HITECH

HFCA

Page 15 of 16

141. Which aspect of cloud computing makes it very difficult to perform repeat audits over time to track changes and compliance?

Virtualization

Multitenancy

Resource pooling

Dynamic optimization

142. Which security concept would business continuity and disaster recovery fall under?

Confidentiality

Availability

Fault tolerance

Integrity

143. Which of the following is NOT an application or utility to apply and enforce baselines on a system?

Chef

GitHub

Puppet

Active Directory

144. Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the ability for a cloud customer to easily remove their applications and data from a cloud environment?

Reversibility

Availability

Portability

Interoperability

145. Which of the following is NOT a function performed by the record protocol of TLS?

Encryption

Acceleration

Authentication

Compression

146. What concept does the "R" represent with the DREAD model?

Reproducibility

Repudiation

Risk

Residual

147. The SOC Type 2 reports are divided into five principles.

Which of the five principles must also be included when auditing any of the other four principles?

Confidentiality

Privacy

Security

Availability

148. How many additional DNS queries are needed when DNSSEC integrity checks are added?

Three

Zero

One

Two

149. Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the cloud customer, regardless of which cloud model is used?

Platform

Infrastructure

Governance

Application

150. Which of the following service categories entails the least amount of support needed on the part of the cloud customer?

SaaS

IaaS

DaaS

PaaS

Page 16 of 16

151. Which of the following would NOT be a reason to activate a BCDR strategy?

Staffing loss

Terrorism attack

Utility disruptions

Natural disaster

152. Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the oversight of processes and systems, as well as to ensuring their compliance with specific policies and regulations?

Governance

Regulatory requirements

Service-level agreements

Auditability

153. Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the ability to reuse or move components of an application or service?

Availability

Interoperability

Reversibility

Portability

154. Which of the following is a restriction that can be enforced by information rights management (IRM) that is not possible for traditional file system controls?

Delete

Modify

Read

Real Exam Dumps for CCSP Test

Real Exam Dumps for CCSP Test

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