SPLK-5001 Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst Exam Free Dumps

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Passing the Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst SPLK-5001 exam with dumps is easy now. There are 66 multiple-choice questions in the real Splunk SPLK-5001 exam, and you have 75 minutes to finish the test. The exam price is $130. The Splunk SPLK-5001 exam is for Splunk Enterprise and Enterprise Security. We have cracked the latest Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst SPLK-5001 exam dumps, which can help you study all the related topics. Free Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst SPLK-5001 exam dumps are available below.

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1. Which Enterprise Security framework provides a mechanism for running preconfigured actions within the Splunk platform or integrating with external applications?

Asset and Identity

Notable Event

Threat Intelligence

Adaptive Response

2. Which of the following Splunk Enterprise Security features allows industry frameworks such as CIS Critical Security Controls, MITRE ATT&CK, and the Lockheed Martin Cyber Kill Chain® to be mapped to Correlation Search results?

Annotations

Playbooks

Comments

Enrichments

3. Which of the following is the primary benefit of using the CIM in Splunk?

It allows for easier correlation of data from different sources.

It improves the performance of search queries on raw data.

It enables the use of advanced machine learning algorithms.

It automatically detects and blocks cyber threats.

4. Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) are methods or behaviors utilized by attackers.

In which framework are these categorized?

NIST 800-53

ISO 27000

CIS18

MITRE ATT&CK

5. A threat hunter executed a hunt based on the following hypothesis:

As an actor, I want to plant rundll32 for proxy execution of malicious code and leverage Cobalt Strike for Command and Control.

Relevant logs and artifacts such as Sysmon, netflow, IDS alerts, and EDR logs were searched, and the hunter is confident in the conclusion that Cobalt Strike is not present in the company’s environment.

Which of the following best describes the outcome of this threat hunt?

The threat hunt was successful because the hypothesis was not proven.

The threat hunt failed because the hypothesis was not proven.

The threat hunt failed because no malicious activity was identified.

The threat hunt was successful in providing strong evidence that the tactic and tool is not present in the environment.

6. An analyst notices that one of their servers is sending an unusually large amount of traffic, gigabytes more than normal, to a single system on the Internet. There doesn’t seem to be any associated increase in incoming traffic.

What type of threat actor activity might this represent?

Data exfiltration

Network reconnaissance

Data infiltration

Lateral movement

7. In which phase of the Continuous Monitoring cycle are suggestions and improvements typically made?

Define and Predict

Establish and Architect

Analyze and Report

Implement and Collect

8. An analyst is not sure that all of the potential data sources at her company are being correctly or completely utilized by Splunk and Enterprise Security.

Which of the following might she suggest using, in order to perform an analysis of the data types available and some of their potential security uses?

Splunk ITSI

Security Essentials

SOAR

Splunk Intelligence Management

9. During their shift, an analyst receives an alert about an executable being run from C:WindowsTemp.

Why should this be investigated further?

Temp directories aren't owned by any particular user, making it difficult to track the process owner when files are executed.

Temp directories are flagged as non-executable, meaning that no files stored within can be executed, and this executable was run from that directory.

Temp directories contain the system page file and the virtual memory file, meaning the attacker can use their malware to read the in memory values of running programs.

Temp directories are world writable thus allowing attackers a place to drop, stage, and execute malware on a system without needing to worry about file permissions.

10. An analyst would like to visualize threat objects across their environment and chronological risk events for a Risk Object in Incident Review. Where would they find this?

Running the Risk Analysis Adaptive Response action within the Notable Event.

Via a workflow action for the Risk Investigation dashboard.

Via the Risk Analysis dashboard under the Security Intelligence tab in Enterprise Security.

Clicking the risk event count to open the Risk Event Timeline.

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11. A Risk Rule generates events on Suspicious Cloud Share Activity and regularly contributes to confirmed incidents from Risk Notables. An analyst realizes the raw logs these events are generated from contain information which helps them determine what might be malicious.

What should they ask their engineer for to make their analysis easier?

Create a field extraction for this information.

Add this information to the risk message.

Create another detection for this information.

Allowlist more events based on this information.

12. What device typically sits at a network perimeter to detect command and control and other potentially suspicious traffic?

Host-based firewall

Web proxy

Endpoint Detection and Response

Intrusion Detection System

13. 186.119.200 - - [28/Jul/2023:12:04:13 -0300] "GET /login/ HTTP/1.0" 200 3733 What kind of attack is occurring?

Denial of Service Attack

Distributed Denial of Service Attack

Cross-Site Scripting Attack

Database Injection Attack

14. According to David Bianco's Pyramid of Pain, which indicator type is least effective when used in continuous monitoring?

Domain names

TTPs

NetworM-lost artifacts

Hash values

15. An analysis of an organization’s security posture determined that a particular asset is at risk and a new process or solution should be implemented to protect it. Typically, who would be in charge of implementing the new process or solution that was selected?

Security Architect

SOC Manager

Security Engineer

Security Analyst

16. Which of the following is a correct Splunk search that will return results in the most performant way?

index=foo host=i-478619733 | stats range(_time) as duration by src_ip | bin duration span=5min | stats count by duration, host

| stats range(_time) as duration by src_ip | index=foo host=i-478619733 | bin duration span=5min | stats count by duration, host

index=foo host=i-478619733 | transaction src_ip |stats count by host

index=foo | transaction src_ip |stats count by host | search host=i-478619733

17. There are many resources for assisting with SPL and configuration questions.

Which of the following resources feature community-sourced answers?

Splunk Answers

Splunk Lantern

Splunk Guidebook

Splunk Documentation

18. A successful Continuous Monitoring initiative involves the entire organization.

When an analyst discovers the need for more context or additional information, perhaps from additional data sources or altered correlation rules, to what role would this request generally escalate?

SOC Manager

Security Analyst

Security Engineer

Security Architect

19. Splunk Enterprise Security has numerous frameworks to create correlations, integrate threat intelligence, and provide a workflow for investigations.

Which framework raises the threat profile of individuals or assets to allow identification of people or devices that perform an unusual amount of suspicious activities?

Threat Intelligence Framework

Risk Framework

Notable Event Framework

Asset and Identity Framework

20. While the top command is utilized to find the most common values contained within a field, a Cyber Defense Analyst hunts for anomalies.

Which of the following Splunk commands returns the least common values?

least

uncommon

rare

base

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21. The Lockheed Martin Cyber Kill Chain® breaks an attack lifecycle into several stages.

A threat actor modified the registry on a compromised Windows system to ensure that their malware would automatically run at boot time. Into which phase of the Kill Chain would this fall?

Act on Objectives

Exploitation

Delivery

Installation

22. A Risk Notable Event has been triggered in Splunk Enterprise Security, an analyst investigates the alert, and determines it is a false positive.

What metric would be used to define the time between alert creation and close of the event?

MTTR (Mean Time to Respond)

MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)

MTTA (Mean Time to Acknowledge)

MTTD (Mean Time to Detect)

SPLK-5001 Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst Exam Free Dumps

SPLK-5001 Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst Exam Free Dumps

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