Updated 156-215.81.20 Online Dumps Help You Pass CCSA R81.20 Exam

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156-215.81.20 is one required test for CCSA R81.20 certification. There are 100 multiple-choice questions in the real 156-215.81.20 exam, and you have 90 minutes to answer all the questions. The required passing score for Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 156-215.81.20 exam is 70%. The updated 156-215.81.20 exam online dumps are valuable for you to study all the related CCSA R81.20 exam topics. Free CCSA R81.20 156-215.81.20 exam updated online dumps are available below.

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1. Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

fw ctl get int activate_drop_templates

fwaccel stat

fwaccel stats

fw ctl templates Cd

2. Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

hostname myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

3. The CDT utility supports which of the following?

Major version upgrades to R77.30

Only Jumbo HFA’s and hotfixes

Only major version upgrades to R80.10

All upgrades

4. Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

Is configured using cpconfig

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

5. What command would show the API server status?

cpm status

api restart

api status

show api status

6. How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VP

Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

7. Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

8. What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect

Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

9. Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel.

Which port is used for this?

UDP port 265

TCP port 265

UDP port 256

TCP port 256

10. What is true about the IPS-Blade?

in R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

in R80, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

in R80, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

in R80, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

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11. Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU.

After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy

12. When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

Any size

Less than 20GB

More than 10GB and less than 20 GB

At least 20GB

13. Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

fwd

fwm

cpm

cpd

14. If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

15. Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?

I have changed this rule

Someone else has changed this rule

This rule is managed by check point’s SOC

This rule can’t be changed as it’s an implied rule

16. Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell (clash)19+

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

17. Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

X-chkp-sid

Accept-Charset

Proxy-Authorization

Application

18. What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

19. Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.

Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.

Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.

Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

20. You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference.

What command should you use?

write mem <filename>

show config -f <filename>

save config -o <filename>

save configuration <filename>

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21. Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic.

Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?

Slow Path

Medium Path

Fast Path

Accelerated Path

22. From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

23. You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway.

Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

fwd

fwm

cpd

cpwd

24. R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Versions R77 and higher

Versions R76 and higher

Versions R75.20 and higher

Version R75 and higher

25. You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot.

What command can be used?

show unsaved

show save-state

show configuration diff

show config-state

26. In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

27. Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Symmetric routing

Failovers

Asymmetric routing

Anti-Spoofing

28. What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

29. What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

30. Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

Quicker than Full sync

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

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31. Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

$FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server

$FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

32. Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10.

What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

CPUSE online upgrade

CPUSE offline upgrade

SmartUpdate upgrade

33. SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:

Matching a log against each event definition

Create an event candidate

Matching a log against local exclusions

Matching a log against global exclusions

34. John is using Management HA.

Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

secondary Smartcenter

active Smartcenter

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

primary Smartcenter

35. Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Slow path

Firewall path

Medium path

Accelerated path

36. Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

Proactively detects threats

Delivers file with original content

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

37. The SmartEvent R80 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

SmartView Monitor

SmartEventWeb

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

SmartView

38. SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs.

What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Smart Cloud Services

Load Sharing Mode Services

Threat Agent Solution

Public Cloud Services

39. What SmartEvent component creates events?

Consolidation Policy

Correlation Unit

SmartEvent Policy

SmartEvent GUI

40. Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

Basic C Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance

Optimized C Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks

Strict C Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance

Recommended C Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

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41. When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?

When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta

When an interface fails the delta claims the priority

When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority

When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over

42. Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Incoming

Internal

External

Outgoing

43. When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Security policy

Inbound chain

Outbound chain

Decryption is not supported

44. Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Capsule Docs

Capsule Cloud

Capsule Enterprise

Capsule Workspace

45. You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information.

What command would you use to restore this backup?

restore_backup

import backup

cp_merge

migrate import

46. What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

Use 1 cluster + 1st sync

Use 1 dedicated sync interface

Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync

Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync

47. Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

No, only one can be connected

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators

Yes, but only one has the right to write

48. What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

Endpoint Security Client

Full Agent

Light Agent

System Agent

49. In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log.

Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Accounting

Suppression

Accounting/Suppression

Accounting/Extended

50. You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher.

How can you enable them?

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

fw ctl miltik pq enable

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51. Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by?

ELA and CPD

FWD and LEA

FWD and CPLOG

ELA and CPLOG

52. To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members? Choose the best answer.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

fw ctl get int fwha vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

cphaprob Ca if

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

53. What is the SOLR database for?

Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities

Writes data to the database and full text search

Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server

Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

54. Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members?

cphaprob state

cphaprob status

cphaprob

cluster state

55. Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

Security Gateway

Management container

Management server

Security Gateway container

56. Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

Server Units

Administrator Units

Account Units

Account Servers

57. Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.

AES-128

AES-256

DES

3DES

58. What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?

Clustered Protocol

Synchronized Cluster Protocol

Control Cluster Protocol

Cluster Control Protocol

59. Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Select three)

Partial log

Log

Network log

Full log

60. Which command shows the installed licenses?

cplic print

print cplic

fwlic print

show licenses

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61. Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

SmartManager

SmartConsole

Security Gateway

Security Management Server

62. Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without stopping Check Point processes?

All options stop Check Point processes

backup

migrate export

snapshot

63. What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination.

It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application.

It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer.

It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types.

64. What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination on client side’ is not enabled in Global properties?

A host route to route to the destination IP

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly

65. In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

SmartConsole

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

Security Management Server

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

66. Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________.

User Center

Package repository

Download Center Web site

License and Contract repository

67. When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:

Security Management Server’s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.

Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.

SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

68. Fill in the blank: By default, the SIC certificates issued by R80 Management Server are based on the ____________ algorithm.

SHA-256

SHA-200

MD5

SHA-128

69. Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?

Quick Mode Complete

Aggressive Mode Complete

Main Mode Complete

IKE Mode Complete

70. Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review and makes some rule changes. He notices that there is a padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the Rule Base.

What is the possible explanation for this?

DNS Rule is using one of the new feature of R80 where an administrator can mark a rule with the padlock icon to let other administrators know it is important.

Another administrator is logged into the Management and currently editing the DNS Rule.

DNS Rule is a placeholder rule for a rule that existed in the past but was deleted.

This is normal behavior in R80 when there are duplicate rules in the Rule Base.

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71. Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

Down

No Response

Inactive

Failed

72. Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?

Password

Certificate

Token

Pre-shared secret

73. What is the BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH?

ifconfig -a

show interfaces

show interfaces detail

show configuration interface

74. Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ____________.

User groups

Users using UserCheck

Individual users

All users in the database

75. Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

ThreatWiki

Whitelist Files

AppWiki

IPS Protections

76. Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

SSL

Captive Portal

PKI

RSA

77. The SIC Status “Unknown” means

There is connection between the gateway and Security Management Server but it is not trusted.

The secure communication is established.

There is no connection between the gateway and Security Management Server.

The Security Management Server can contact the gateway, but cannot establish SI

78. What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?

In R80 all Network Address Translation is done automatically and there is no need for manually defined NAT-rules.

Network Address Translation of RFC1918-compliant networks is needed to access the Internet.

Network Address Translation is desired for some services, but not for others.

The public IP-address is different from the gateway’s external IP

79. Which of the following commands is used to verify license installation?

Cplic verify license

Cplic print

Cplic show

Cplic license

80. To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:

a routing table

awareness of the network topology

a Demilitarized Zone

a Security Policy install

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81. Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

The firewall topologies

NAT Rules

The Rule Base

The VPN Domains

82. You have discovered suspicious activity in your network.

What is the BEST immediate action to take?

Create a policy rule to block the traffic.

Create a suspicious action rule to block that traffic.

Wait until traffic has been identified before making any changes.

Contact ISP to block the traffic.

83. Tom has connected to the Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward.

What will happen to the changes already made?

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear the cache, and restore changes.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

Tom's changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

Tom's changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

84. Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

cpconfig

Management Command Line

SmartConsole

SmartUpdate

85. How would you determine the software version from the CLI?

fw ver

fw stat

fw monitor

cpinfo

86. In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or rules can also be modified using:

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Gateways prior to R80.

A complete CLI and API interface using SSH and custom CPCode integration.

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Management prior to R80.

A complete CLI and API interface for Management with 3rd Party integration.

87. When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.

The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.

The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.

Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

88. Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

AES-GCM-256

AES-CBC-256

AES-GCM-128

89. Fill in the blank: To create policy for traffic to or from a particular location, use the _____________.

DLP shared policy

Geo policy shared policy

Mobile Access software blade

HTTPS inspection

90. After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

Page 10 of 12

91. Which two Identity Awareness commands are used to support identity sharing?

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

92. True or False: In R80, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with write permission at the same time.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.

True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission.

93. Which one of the following is TRUE?

Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy

One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both

Inline layer can be defined as a rule action

Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers

94. Which deployment adds a Security Gateway to an existing environment without changing IP routing?

Distributed

Bridge Mode

Remote

Standalone

95. Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Shared secret

Certificate

One-time password

Token

96. You can see the following graphic:

What is presented on it?

Properties of personal. p12 certificate file issued for user John.

Shared secret properties of John’s password.

VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.

Expired. p12 certificate properties for user John.

97. When configuring LDAP User Directory integration, Changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Reflected immediately for all users who are using template.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

Reflected for all users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

98. Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway

The amount of logs been store is less than the usual in older versions

99. Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

Only when there is Multicast solution set up

There is Load Sharing solution set up

Only when there is Unicast solution set up

There is High Availability solution set up

100. Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?

Save Policy

Install Database

Save session

Install Policy

Page 11 of 12

101. From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

Verify a Security Policy

Open a terminal shell

Add a static route

View Security Management GUI Clients

102. Which of the following are types of VPN communities?

Pentagon, star, and combination

Star, octagon, and combination

Combined and star

Meshed, star, and combination

103. What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

inform, ask, and block

block, action, and warn

action, inform, and ask

ask, block, and notify

104. What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

URL Filtering and Network

Network and Threat Prevention

Application Control and URL Filtering

Network and Application Control

105. Which statement is TRUE of anti-spoofing?

Anti-spoofing is not needed when IPS software blade is enabled

It is more secure to create anti-spoofing groups manually

It is BEST Practice to have anti-spoofing groups in sync with the routing table

With dynamic routing enabled, anti-spoofing groups are updated automatically whenever there is a routing change

106. Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

NAT

Firewall

Global Properties

Object Explorer

107. How can the changes made by an administrator before publishing the session be seen by a superuser administrator?

By impersonating the administrator with the ‘Login as…’ option

They cannot be seen

From the SmartView Tracker audit log

From Manage and Settings > Sessions, right click on the session and click ‘View Changes…’

108. Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

Application Control

Threat Emulation

Logging and Status

Monitoring

109. Publish the policy.

110. True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties

True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration

True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server

False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties

Page 12 of 12

111. Consider the Global Properties following settings:

The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means:

UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

112. How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.

By using IPSEC

By using SIC

By using ICA

By using 3DES

113. Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens on by default?

259, 900

256, 257

8080, 529

80, 256

114. What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Monitoring the status of processes

Sending and receiving logs

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

Generating and modifying certificates

115. The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump.

How can you achieve this requirement?

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.

Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.

Updated 156-215.81.20 Online Dumps Help You Pass CCSA R81.20 Exam

Updated 156-215.81.20 Online Dumps Help You Pass CCSA R81.20 Exam

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